• Carl@lemm.ee
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    9 hours ago

    when it’s the state/government/leadership that is using acts of violence

    So when a corporation uses or sponsors acts of violence it’s not authoritarianism? I guess Coca-Cola-funded fascist death squads are just smol bean libertarians fighting the oppressive tankie socialists!

    You can’t even get your talking points in order. The main people on lemmy.ml are anti-capitalist, they would accuse those who would censor them of being anti-communist.

    • WolfLink@sh.itjust.works
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      8 hours ago

      So when a corporation uses or sponsors acts of violence it’s not authoritarianism? I guess Coca-Cola-funded fascist death squads are just smol bean libertarians fighting the oppressive tankie socialists!

      Until Coca-Cola is its a government, no, that’s not authoritarianism. That doesn’t mean it’s good. Things can be bad without being authoritarianism.

      You can’t even get your talking points in order. The main people on lemmy.ml are anti-capitalist, they would accuse those who would censor them of being anti-communist.

      Yeah you’re right I was caught between two phrasings and I mixed them up. I edited it to fix it. Thanks for pointing out my mistake!

      • OBJECTION!@lemmy.ml
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        7 hours ago

        Until Coca-Cola is its a government, no, that’s not authoritarianism.

        Which was more authoritarian: slavery or freeing the slaves? Slaveowners were not the government, therefore, according to you, nothing they did could be considered authoritarian, right?

        It seems pretty arbitrary to single out one single heirarchy and say that only that heirarchy is capable of being authoritarian.

        • WolfLink@sh.itjust.works
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          7 hours ago

          Idk what you think we’re arguing about but I’m curious where this is going.

          It seems pretty clear to me that applying the definition I gave previously of “authoritarian violence” as “state-perpetrated violence against citizens with ideas the state finds threatening”, slavery could be considered “authoritarian violence” but “freeing the slaves” couldn’t.

          If you are specifically talking about the US Civil War, I do think that counts as “authoritarian violence” to the extent that the war was about stopping a group of citizens from rebelling against the government.

          It seems pretty arbitrary to single out one single heirarchy and say that only that heirarchy is capable of being authoritarian.

          To be clear, I’m going off of the Wikipedia definition which defines “authoritarianism” as:

          Authoritarianism is a political system characterized by the rejection of political plurality, the use of strong central power to preserve the political status quo, and reductions in democracyseparation of powerscivil liberties, and the rule of law.

          I read that as pretty specifically applying to governments, but I could see how you could apply the idea to describe things like anti-union efforts.

          • OBJECTION!@lemmy.ml
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            6 hours ago

            It seems pretty clear to me that applying the definition I gave previously of “authoritarian violence” as “state-perpetrated violence against citizens with ideas the state finds threatening”, slavery could be considered “authoritarian violence” but “freeing the slaves” couldn’t.

            What? How? The state did not order people to own slaves, and the slavers could free their slaves at will. It seems pretty clear to me that the opposite is true, that private citizens were operating in way that most reasonable people would call authoritarian, but by your definition cannot be called authoritarian because it’s only authoritarian when the state does it.

            I suppose you could argue that the state failing to prevent individuals from performing authoritarian acts is a form of authoritarianism, but at that point the definition starts to break down. Is it possible for a state to be authoritarian through inaction? Suppose, for example, interracial relationships are technically legal, but every time one happens or is even suspected, a lynch mob strings someone up on a tree, and the government fails to prosecute.

            If the state can be authoritarian through inaction, then at that point it becomes rather unclear what authoritarianism even means. You define it as, “state-perpetrated violence against citizens with ideas the state finds threatening.” But if those people pose a genuine threat to others, then doesn’t the state have an obligation to stop them in order to not be authoritarian, just as they do with the lynch mob in the previous example? And for that matter, isn’t it authoritarian for the US to allow Coca-Cola to fund death squads, in the original example?

            I don’t think the term “authoritarian” defined in this way is useful or holds up under scrutiny.

    • TheEighthDoctor@lemmy.zip
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      8 hours ago

      Bwah bwah bwah what about coca cola, what about Gaza, what about south America, what about Iraq bwah bwah

      The problem with tankies like yourself is that they can’t recognise that the CCP is evil, Ukraine was not full of nazis needing to be invaded and not everything is western propaganda.

      The US is a fucked up evil empire, Europe has a violent colonialist past and is still doing bad shit around the world, but your Communist Utopias are just misery spreading machines on everything they touch.